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Found 5 results

  1. I was watching gurinder chandha's documentary recently where some interesting points where made about how jinnah had met winston churchill before partition where they had quite warm words exchanged in letters and held secret meetings with each other. Winston churchill hated the Indians especially brahmin hindus in his documents and overall opposed and hated the idea of india for wanting to leave the British empire. He also hated Muhammadans and Islam as he had stated it in documents yet when he talks to jinnah in letters he is said to have said warm words about Islam. Maybe he was lying to hide churchills real feelings towards both communities and get jinnah on his side. So I'm wondering did churchill along with the British ruling classes (including royal family) deliberately get cripss to draw a line to divide punjab deliberately dividing nanakana sahib and amritsar knowing it would cause mayhem in the Sikh community enough for them to resort to take up armed resistance to resist the split of their homeland. Meaning violence would have been the deliberately objective by the british enough for it to be wide spread it would either: 1) Prevent the British leaving as Indians would be begging the British administration and army to stay on longer to control the violence and continue its governance. or 2) Splitting the united india into two countries would be a parting revenge shot to the Indian's for their insistence of the British leaving. Also having pakistan as a base to continue their efforts in south asia would be handy since the Indians had enough of the British raj. Churchill knew the Sikhs are a martial faith community, he know most of them come from punjab, he also knew they would fight to stop their holy places and land being left in muslim hands. It seems having known all these things the unforgivable act of partitioning punjab was a deliberate policy to ensure Sikhs were used in the evil game plan.
  2. So I was talking to my family and I was always under the impression that they orignated from west punjab prior to 47, they were in areas such as lyalpur (now called fasialbad), montgomery (sahiwal), multan etc But now I have been told that we originate from where we live now which is adampur and kurdhpur next to jahalandhar and that we used to migrate to different areas of punjab where there was nothing and build up the land to make it agricultural I was just wondering did many sikhs do this? Or did most originate from where they came from before partition? My clan are aujla. Even though I dont believe in caste stuff, its just relevant to find out more about clans who used to do this and their history. WJKK WJKF
  3. Ive spoken to a few Pakistanis who claim their ancestors converted from Sikhism, ie their great great grandfather etc... I always thought it was Hindus who converted to islam as a few hundred years ago Sikhi was so strong I wouldn't have thought it would be possible to break a Sikhs faith espc during the Sikh empire etc to islam. Also (although off topic) do you think a civil war is inventible in the Uk between Pakistanis and everyone else? Do think its a muslim problem in Britain or a Pakistani Islamic problem because I know other muslims who behave much belter than Pakistanis in the Uk, Also compare Pakistanis in America and Canada with Uk they worse than Sikhs there.
  4. Shows what could have been, even after the Radcliffe award had been announced had the leadership been strong enough http://www.deccanchr...as-too-weak-700 The article writer is wrong in his view that the areas referred to my Liddell in his diary are areas centred on Amritsar. The fear amongst the Pakistan leadership was that the Sikh migration from West Punjab was a tactical withdrawal after which the Sikhs would invade and occupy Lahore, Lyallpur and other West Punjab areas.
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